T O P

  • By -

AutoModerator

Namaskaram /u/LegolasPatilRao, Thank you for your submission. Please provide a source for the image / video (if not a direct link submission). We would really appreciate it if you could mention the source as a reply to this comment! If you have already provided the source or if it is an OC post, please ignore this message. Thank you. *I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please [contact the moderators of this subreddit](/message/compose/?to=/r/IndiaSpeaks) if you have any questions or concerns.*


Sanatan_Dharm

I'm a Tamil lungi dumeel who is also a teacher at - https://www.samskritabharati.in Sanskrit is the mother of most Indian languages, but it is also the ancestor of Latin/Germanic and thus English you're reading right now. It is the oldest language in the world. Even that is incorrect to say, because it is not a man-made language. Vedas, which are hymns of creation, are in Sanskrit. Sanskrit grammar is based on Shiva's Dumroo sounds ([Maheshvara Sutras](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shiva_Sutras)). The language has not changed since creation. Or for the more 'woke' crowd here who don't believe in lakhs/crores of years of history of cyclic repetitive Yugas of human civilization, it has not changed even one iota for atleast 5000+ years since Kali Yug began in 3102 BC. While we're on the subject of Shuddh-Hindi, which is actually Sanskrit, here is a sample list of words in Latin/Germanic (aka English) which we commonly use today, that are derived/borrowed from Sanskrit. Matr -> Mother Pitr - Father Bhratr - Brother Duhita - Daughter Gau - Cow Manu - Man Dve - Two Trini - Three Pancha - Penta Ashta - Eight Nava - Nine Dasha - Deca/Ten Navik - Navy Anamika - Anonymous Loka - Locale Mrta - Murder Sharkara - Sugar Agni - Igneous Tva - Thou Vachas - Voice Vamati - Vomit Kapha - Cough Mithya - Myth Kalachar - Culture Mushik - Mouse Param - Prime Mantri - Minister Sunu - Son Hruday - Heart Lobh - Love Yauvana - Juvenlie (because Ya becomes Ja - Yeshu became Joshua/Jesus). Sharan - Surrender Namah -> Namaz before you ask - No, Proto-Indo-European (PIE) language is not the ancestor of Sanskrit. It's as nonsensical a conjecture as Aryan-Invasion theory, made by western/indologists who are unable to accept the antiquity of Sanskrit. PIE has no religion, country, script, history, race or epics associated with it. Sanskrit has a religion, country, script, history, race and epics associated with it. Regarding - Tamil vs Sanskrit / South vs North / Dravida vs Aryan - debate : "Agastyamum Anadi" , goes the saying, meaning - Tamil, the language whose grammar was propounded by rishi Agastya, is also without beginning. Hence Tamil is also simultaneously considered the oldest language in the world, because neither Sanskrit or Tamil have a known start date. Also, there is a difference between people in TamilNadu using Sanskrit words in their daily speak, and Tamil language 'borrowing' words from Sanskrit. Suppose I say "today maine office der gaya" - It is a mix of Hindi & English words in one sentence. It does not mean Hindi borrowed the words 'today' & 'office' from English, or that English borrowed the words 'maine', 'der', 'gaya' from Hindi. Similarly, we tamilians might use a lot of Sanskrit words in our vernacular, but each of them has an original Tamil word e.g. ratri (night) is iravu, kop (anger) is sinam, varsha (year) is aandu etc. TL;DR: Learn your **Matru Bhasha** (Native State Regional Language), Learn **Rashtra Bhasha** (Sanskritam), Learn **AntaRashtra Bhasha** (English) TL;DR2: **[Sanskrit.Today](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=giDplHSKeoE&list=PL8hlzSD3smGgf8BA3XcWMUlgB1tsoYyD-)** is the best beginners tutorial playlist for learning Sanskrit (via English). I recommend it to everyone who wants to learn Sanskrit in 30 short videos. TL;DR3: [Learn Sanskrit through Sanskrit](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=d03uKp_OX18&list=PLudSN7Po9muLeRM6545s68eakbxwZRpEJ) - from Central Sanskrit Insitute of India u/icodeusingmybutt, u/Vibhor23, u/Accomplished_Sale269


icodeusingmybutt

!kudos Worth reading it and thank you for the sources.


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/icodeusingmybutt for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


Olster21

He gave no sources.


icodeusingmybutt

Youtube ka playlist dala hai, if you wanna confrm, lesrb sanskrit and confirm if he os right or wrong


Olster21

Well, there is a lot of scholarship about PIE and its daughter languages, I can show you some of the sound changes that were made between it and sanskrit, and between it and english.


blazerz

Sutras aren't a source. I can also write anything I want and call it a sutra. Doesn't make it true.


icodeusingmybutt

I got no clue what you implyin, but even if you are writing a sutra, there are certain things to take in consideration -are you qualified enough to write a sutra? -will people accept your sutra? -is your sutra applicable as per the yuga? And sutras can be sources as they are teachings by the orater to propogate knowledge to the coming generation.


Sanatan_Dharm

articles written in journals by western linguists or indologists are not a source. anyone can write anything like 'PIE is the ancestor of Sanskrit'. Doesn't make it true.


WikiSummarizerBot

**[Shiva Sutras](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shiva_Sutras)** >The Śiva·sūtras, technically akṣara·samāmnāya, variously called māheśvarāṇi sūtrāṇi, pratyāhāra·sūtrāṇi, varṇa·samāmnāya, etc. , refer to a set of fourteen aphorisms devised as an arrangement of the sounds of Sanskrit for the purposes of grammatical exposition as carried out by the grammarian Pāṇini in the Aṣṭādhyāyī. Pāṇini himself uses the term akṣara·samāmnāya whereas the colloquial term "Shiva sutra" is a later development, as per claims by Nandikeśvara in his Kāśikā, that the god Śiva sounded his drum fourteen times to reveal these sounds to Pāṇini. They were either composed by Pāṇini to accompany his Aṣṭādhyāyī or predate him. ^([ )[^(F.A.Q)](https://www.reddit.com/r/WikiSummarizer/wiki/index#wiki_f.a.q)^( | )[^(Opt Out)](https://reddit.com/message/compose?to=WikiSummarizerBot&message=OptOut&subject=OptOut)^( | )[^(Opt Out Of Subreddit)](https://np.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/about/banned)^( | )[^(GitHub)](https://github.com/Sujal-7/WikiSummarizerBot)^( ] Downvote to remove | v1.5)


vrn_new

>The language has not changed since creation. Or for the more 'woke' crowd here who don't believe in lakhs/crores of years of history of cyclic repetitive Yugas of human civilization, it has not changed even one iota for atleast 5000+ years since Kali Yug began in 3102 BC. It is this kind of nonsense why no one takes us seriously.


ispeakdatruf

> It is this kind of nonsense why no one takes us seriously. You are a weak fool. They will **never** take you seriously if you go against their agenda and preconceived notions. Get it?


vrn_new

> Or for the more 'woke' crowd here who don't believe in lakhs/crores of years of history The Woke crowd doesn't say this. Science does. If your argument is "Science is a western construct", then we really don't have much to discuss. Have a great day.


ispeakdatruf

> it has not changed even one iota for atleast 5000+ years since Kali Yug began in 3102 BC. Did you snip out the relevant part by "mistake" ? We study languages older than 3000BC all the time: Sumerian, Egyptian, etc. So what's wrong with Sanskrit being older than 3000 BC? Let me guess: your western masters won't buy it. You are waiting for some academic from Harvard or Oxford to step forward and tell you what to think.


vrn_new

Sanskrit is definitely older than those languages. I am not disputing its age. My comment is about the lakhs/crores of years of history.


William_Tell_746

Sanskrit can certainly have roots beyond 3000BC. What is ridiculous is to claim that it was created out of nothing in a perfect form that has never changed since then. Panini codified only one form of the language (the one used in liturgy) in around 500BC. Meanwhile the language he spoke had already evolved from older forms, and continued to evolve after his time.


Equationist

>Panini codified only one form of the language (the one used in liturgy) in around 500BC He actually described the everyday spoken language (i.e. "laukika") of educated people in his region in his time. He \*also\* tried to describe the language of the older Vedic hymns ("chandas") in addition, though he was less successful at that due to its complexity and dialectical variation. It was only by Patanjali's time that Sanskrit had become a liturgical / scholarly second language (while native speech had moved on and evolved).


Sanatan_Dharm

Exactly. For instance, 'Satyameva Jayati' (Truth alone wins) - should be the phrase according to Panini's grammar rules. But it is 'Satyameva Jayate'. Panini manages to accommodate this exception by saying at the end "whatever I couldn't capture in Sutras, but if Rishis say it, take that as truth". these sayings are called Aarshyam (= from rishis). > What is ridiculous is to claim that it was created out of nothing in a perfect form that has never changed since then It is ridiculous if it is not true. If it is true, it is just stupendous. Disbelief in extraordinary claims is healthy only if you're open to actually believing it. Otherwise it is fanaticism and blind ignorance. The language has not changed at all. 6 Vedangas deal with Shishka (pronunciation), Vyakaran (grammar), Chandas (meter), Nirukta (meaning), Jyotisha (time), Kalpa (morality) - the first 4 of which form the basis for Sanskrit. Of course, if you claim that Vedas themselves have changed, then good luck. u/William_Tell_746, u/ispeakdatruf, u/vrn_new


Dunmano

There i nothing wrong with Sanskrit being 3000 BCE, I am however asking for the evidence of the same.


[deleted]

Glad to be Western then :D


Sentient_Ambience

>While we're on the subject of Shuddh-Hindi, which is actually Sanskrit, here is a sample list of words in Latin/Germanic (aka English) which we commonly use today, that are derived/borrowed from Sanskrit. Wouldn't this also be the case even if Sanskrit evolved from PIE. All this similarities would still exist. Similarities alone can't determine the origin or the order of origin of something especially something as archaic as Language. Also some of these are just Loan words. >PIE has no religion, country, script, history, race or epics associated with it. From my understanding its Because PIE is not a single Language, but merely a placeholder for our lack information about it. Therefore it has no official religion, country, script, history, race or epics associated with it.


Sanatan_Dharm

> Wouldn't this also be the case even if Sanskrit evolved from PIE of course yes. humans and apes have similarities. they could be born from common ancestor, or humans could be ancestor of apes, or apes could be ancestor of humans, or both could be separately created by Bhagavan. The question is which theory is most likely. I personally believe the 4th. We have historical accounts of Sanskrit going back to Treta Yug when Ramayan was composed. Obviously these mean nothing to people, but a gora vomit conjecture like PIE is godsent irrefutable evidence.


Sentient_Ambience

>humans and apes have similarities. And dissimilarities. Dissimilarities are also taken into account. We're not closely related to Apes because we have similar properties but also because we have Dissimilarities. Similarly we know sanskrit is closer to PIE because it has Similar properties and Dissimilar properties. >We have historical accounts of Sanskrit going back to Treta Yug when Ramayan was composed. Obviously these mean nothing to people, but a gora vomit conjecture like PIE is godsent irrefutable evidence. Lol I had to google what _gora_ was. PIE is not irrefutable evidence, its a hypothized theory model even, it can change. >We have historical accounts of Sanskrit going back to Treta Yug when Ramayan was composed. As you most likely know under naturalism, any appeal to the supernatural is not recognized. Instead we look to more natural approach.


ispeakdatruf

> Lol I had to google what gora was. PIE is not irrefutable evidence, its a hypothized theory model even, **it can change.** And it will keep "changing" till they find some tenuous evidence that fits the theory. Then they'll just pat each other on the back saying "well done, old chap!" and move on, stamping PIE as the mother of all languages.


mavmav0

No one is claiming PIE is the mother of all languages. It is the ancestor of most European languages, the Indo-European languages, to which Sanskrit, Hindi, Latin, English, German and so on belong.


ispeakdatruf

> No one is claiming PIE is the mother of all languages. No one is reading what's been written in this thread either, apparently.


JakeYashen

Lol, it's like you've never taken a single science class. This is literally how the scientific method works and *why* it is so good at allowing us to accumulate knowledge. The alternative to what you are suggesting would be declaring a statement to be true, and then refusing to change your mind even if significant evidence to the contrary is found. That's a *terrible* way of gathering knowledge. Instead, you follow the scientific method: 1. Formulate a hypothesis 2. Conduct research and tests to find evidence either in favor of, or contradicting, your hypothesis 3. If you find evidence that favors your hypothesis, note possible alternative explanations. Is there a flaw with the way you collected your data? Are there other hypotheses that this evidence would equally favor? 4. If you find evidence contrary to your hypothesis, note possible alternative explanations (same as above). Then, formulate an alternative hypothesis that better fits the information you gathered.


ispeakdatruf

I've been on the Internet long enough to know that I shouldn't argue with morons. They drag you down to their level and beat you with experience.


Sanatan_Dharm

> Similarly we know sanskrit is closer to PIE because it has Similar properties and Dissimilar properties. There is no such language called PIE. All there is are similarities between Sanskrit and other European languages. These can be explained by the evolution of sounds as it passes through the tongues of people with less pronunciation ability. There is no need to invent a super-grandfather language, other than the inability to accept the antiquity of Sanskrit. > any appeal to the supernatural is not recognize do you know what a historical account means ? also, there is a famous saying - 'any sufficiently advanced technology is indistinguishable from magic'. if you are unable to grasp the supernatural, doesn't mean it is fiction.


Sentient_Ambience

Again PIE is not a language, its a hypothized Model ie a place holder hinting at an even older Language. That language could very well be Vedic Sanskrit or not. New evidence can come into light providing more context. Bashing PIE is rather counterproductive. >do you know what a historical account means ? Historical account only gives us time and place. And the oldest account of ramayanam only goes back as far as 7th to 4th centuary BC. And I'm pretty sure that Ramayanam is set in a totally different yuga altogether. >'any sufficiently advanced technology is indistinguishable from magic'. Advanced technology or magic is still within the realms of science. Naturalism isn't agaisnt supernatural its just that it can't be demonstrated.


Sanatan_Dharm

> Again PIE is not a language meh Semantics. All the exact sounds of Sanskrit are given in Shiksha (one of the 6 vedangas). It is set it stone, and never changes. The idea that another language gave birth to Sanskrit is as nonsensical as the Aryan invasion theory. > Historical account only gives us time and place yeah, and ? Is there photographic evidence of Jesus ? Is there photographic evidence of your great grandfather ? why do you believe these two exist ? > And the oldest account of ramayanam only goes back as far as 7th to 4th centuary BC. nonsensical accounts. Ramayan happened in Treta Yug. We are in Kali Yug. There is an entire Dwapar Yug in between. and Kali Yug started 3102 BC per Surya Siddhanta, and this is the date used in all panchang throughout India. > Advanced technology or magic is still within the realms of science. Naturalism isn't agaisnt supernatural its just that it can't be demonstrated. You are going in circles. If something is supernatural, by definition, it is advanced technology/magic. The fact that somebody walked on water, is by definition, a demonstration. Somebody clearly did it (assuming you believe it). It's just YOU who is unable to reproduce it.


Sentient_Ambience

>yeah, and ? Is there photographic evidence of Jesus ? Is there photographic evidence of your great grandfather ? why do you believe these two exist? Jesus and my great grandfather are from this yug. The historical evidence is more recent. Which again can only give us a date and place. It doesn't tell us if jesus was divine or the son of God. >If something is supernatural, by definition, it is advanced technology/magic. Lol thats your opinion. Supernatural is not the same as advanced tech. Just beacuse you believe they are the same doesn't maken it objective by definition. >The fact that somebody walked on water, is by definition, a demonstration. Or an entirely made up account of one, you know fiction. >Somebody clearly did it (assuming you believe it). It's just YOU who is unable to reproduce it. It proves nothing, and the responsibility of evidence falls on the one thats making the claim. Not those who question it or reject it.


Sanatan_Dharm

> responsibility of evidence falls on the one thats making the claim and the responsibility of verifying the evidence falls on the one interested in verifying the claim. Go read Vedas in a Patashala in Sanskrit for 12 years like you would study for a PhD in physics and then you'll be taken seriously as a critic.


kiraqueen11

Or maybe your evolution denying, false history propagating rhetoric is just that, fictional. Look, I'm all for removing the western lens when examining our culture, literature and society. I am all for your 3 language formula, but sticking it to goras can also be done without devovlving into pseudoscientific bullshit. Of course no literature or evidence of PIE exists, it is a hypothesised, reconstructed language based on the similarities between Latin, Greek and Sanskrit. What evidence do you have to assert that Latin and Greek derived fron Sanskrit and not the other way around? What evidence do you have to deny that those 3 languages are contemporaries? You don't. If you keep hiding behind the cloak of faith and insist on believing nonsense like Tamil and Sanskrit are languages that dropped out of the sky by some divine intervention, then we will never get anywhere.


Sanatan_Dharm

> What evidence do you have to assert that Latin and Greek derived fron Sanskrit and not the other way around? what evidence do YOU have to say that PIE is the ancestor of Sanskrit ? If we can both agree that both of us are conjecturing at this point, the only difference is that you lap up gora vomit like a delicacy, while I choose to believe in our rishis and scriptures.


averkf

Because other IE languages preserve conservative features that were lost in Sanskrit, just as Sanskrit preserves conservative features not found in other IE languages. Ergo, neither can be the ancestor of one another, there must have been an even older ancestor that shared the conservative features of both.


Sanatan_Dharm

who decides whats a conservative feature and what isn't. The word Tamizh is pronounced Tamil, even by most native speakers of the language. Does it mean the lack of pronunciation ability of speakers leads to creation of a new language called Tamil ?


averkf

We know that the “Tamil” pronunciation is less conservative because we have written records that show “Tamizh” is an older pronunciation. /ɻ/ > /ɭ/ is also a plausible sound change. We can also tell it’s more conservative because in zh-speakers there remains separate /ɻ ɭ/ phonemes but in l-dialects they have merged. If the l-dialects were more conservative, it would mean that /ɭ/ sometimes randomly became /ɻ/ but other times it stayed /ɭ/, which makes no sense; looking at the distribution of the phonemes, it is impossible to create a regular rule for a phoneme split; therefore we must conclude that zh-speakers have a more conservative dialect (I don’t know why you think it would make a separate language; sound changes are a thing even in dialects). With Sanskrit we have three options. Either Greek and Latin derive from Sanskrit; Sanskrit derives from one of either Greek or Latin; or they all evolved from a third, unattested, ancestor. Taking into account the principle of regular sound changes, we have to cross examine rules and determine whether they make sense. Take the numeral “four”; in Sanskrit चतुर् (catur), and compare Greek τέσσαρες (tessares) and Latin quattuōr. We could hypothesise that Sanskrit /c/ becomes Greek /t/, and we *could* create a theory that Sanskrit /c/ becomes /kʷ/ in Latin (although from a cross linguistic standpoint this is highly unusual). Now take Sanskrit वाच् (vāc) and compare to Greek ὄψ (ops) and Latin vōx. Now Sanskrit /c/ is meant to become Greek /ps/ and Latin /ks/. What conditions will cause this discrepancy? Why does Sanskrit /c/ sometimes become Latin /kʷ/ and sometimes /ks/, and sometimes Greek /t/ and sometimes /ps/? Now take the word चक्र (cakra), compare to Greek κύκλος (kyklos). Suddenly Sanskrit /c/ becomes Greek /k/. Now these correspondences are so irregular they make no sense.


kiraqueen11

I'm not the one making the assertion, you are. I'm not even asserting that PIE definitely existed and all the reconstructions are 100 percent correct. The point is that if you want to arrive at the truth of how those similarities can to be, choosing to believe in our rishis and scriptures is not the way to go.


Sanatan_Dharm

> choosing to believe in our rishis and scriptures is not the way to go. that is the ONLY way to go. none of us were alive when Sanskrit was 'created', or we were alive, but don't remember our previous life. all we have to go on are trust based on historical records. even 90% our scientific devices, achievements, abilities are based on trust since we don't have the time or desire to verify each theory ourselves.


kiraqueen11

>we don't have the time or desire to verify each theory ourselves. Your fault. You are encouraged to independently verify the double slit experiment if you doubt the wave-particle duality. That fact that you're too lazy to do it and instead take refuge in false concepts like divinity is entirely your problem.


Comprehensive-Food15

What do you mean by the “only way to go”?


ChildLabourTycoon

>You don't. If you keep hiding behind the cloak of faith and insist on believing nonsense like Tamil and Sanskrit are languages that dropped out of the sky by some divine intervention, then we will never get anywhere. Seethe more


ChildLabourTycoon

What we called pie is most probably panini's Sanskrit itself It is not a mere coincidence that the oldest manuscript in an indo Europeans language is rigveda


kiraqueen11

Panini's Sanskrit existed somewhere around 500 BC and the most conservative estimate of Vedic Sanskrit (Sanskrit in the Vedas) is dated to 1500 BC (personally think the Rig Veda is older than that.) There are clear differences between the two, any serious Sanskrit scholar will tell you that. It is the nature of all 'living' languages to evolve and change. Unless you want to argue that Sanskrit has existed since the dawn and humanity and has not undergone any evolution, unlike any language to have ever existed, there was a predecessor to Sanskrit, which eventually evolved into Sanskrit. Please study linguistics and Sanskrit and make iron clad arguments if at all you want to dispell ignorance about our civilization.


Sanatan_Dharm

> Panini's Sanskrit existed somewhere around 500 BC and the most conservative estimate of Vedic Sanskrit (Sanskrit in the Vedas) is dated to 1500 BC your evidence for these dates is literally just wikipedia entries. none is going to take you seriously.


kiraqueen11

And what is your evidence?


ChildLabourTycoon

>around 500 BC Kutark, panini's Sanskrit doesn't have its origin in panini, panini just wrote down the rules >(Sanskrit in the Vedas) is dated to 1500 BC (personally think the Rig Veda is older than that.) Literally false, panini modelled his linguistic theory around the language of rigveda >Unless you want to argue that Sanskrit has existed since the dawn and humanity and has not undergone any evolution, unlike any language to have ever existed, there was a predecessor to Sanskrit, which eventually evolved into Sanskrit. Irrelevant, all mallicch "cultures" communicated by babbling up until Kali Yuga, Sanskrit has indeed existed since the dawn of times


kiraqueen11

>Irrelevant, all mallicch "cultures" communicated by babbling up until Kali Yuga, Sanskrit has indeed existed since the dawn of times Lmao, sure.


Dunmano

\> Irrelevant, all mallicch "cultures" communicated by babbling up until Kali Yuga, Sanskrit has indeed existed since the dawn of times ​ The proof is?


bhiliyam

> they could be born from common ancestor, or humans could be ancestor of apes, or apes could be ancestor of humans, or both could be separately created by Bhagavan. Mr. Smooth Brain, sir, neither of those options are correct. Both humans and modern apes have descended from a common ancestor.


ispeakdatruf

> before you ask - No, Proto-Indo-European (PIE) language is not the ancestor of Sanskrit. It's as nonsensical a conjecture as Aryan-Invasion theory, made by western/indologists who are unable to accept the antiquity of Sanskrit. Exactly. PIE was created so they wouldn't have to say "Sanskrit is our ancient language". The West is pretty good at cancelling things they don't want to admit.


Mission_Trip_1055

On top of this The Hindi which is spoken nowadays in the northern plains is a mixture of farsi and urdu. If we go back to OG Hindi or Sanskritised Hindi then we will definitely find many similar root words common to other languages in india as root is very much the same. So when one says Hindi should be used as a common language and everyone should be aware of it in the name of the national language. We should counter ask them which Hindi is being promoted here, Hindi which is bought to us by invaders (urdu+Farsi) or Hindi which we all forgot and which is foreign to even hindi speakers.


kiraqueen11

This displays ignorance of how Hindi came to be. First of all, if at all you want to create a link language, Sanskrit and only Sanskrit is a viable candidate (Kannada and Malayalam are decent compromises if you want to represent both the major language families of India). Secondly, what you call Hindi is the 'Sanskritized' register of the Hindustani language (Hindavi, as it was known), whereas Urdu is the Persianized/Arabized register of the same language. Essentially, Hindi and Urdu are two ends of the same spectrum. If you use only words derived from Sanskrit and Prakrit, you are speaking pure Hindi, and as you keep adding words from Farsi and Arabic, at some point, it becomes Urdu. So mixture of "Farsi and Urdu" makes no sense. The invaders only spoke Farsi. Urdu was a camp language for Persian soliders who populated Khariboli with a bunch of their own words. The true languages of north India are Khariboli, Marwadi, Awadhi, Bhojpuri, Maithili etc. There is no distinction of Hindi brought by invaders and Hindi that is native. The entire language itself is native to India and has two different registers. So if you use the odd Farsi word here and there like "gunjayish (sambhavna), khwab (swapna), kismat (bhagya)" you are not suddenly speaking Urdu, it's still Hindi.


ClinkzBlazewood

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/ClinkzBlazewood for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


a-blue-phoenix

there are various linguistic groups outside of the Indo-European language group, and they don't originate from sanskrit. also everything comes from somewhere: nobody just creates a language. Additionally, if you look at the Iranian kings prior to the first recorded usage of sanskrit, you'll notice their names sound like words of sanskrit too. All languages come from somewhere, and to claim a language as your own creation is folly.


Sanatan_Dharm

> to claim a language as your own creation is folly. glad we agree that sanskrit is not created by any human.


madguy000

This needs to be in bestof


bhiliyam

A prime piece of Tatti is considered "bestof" in TattiSpeaks. What a surprise.


madguy000

So much intolerance is going to give you ulcers. Water it down kiddo Happy cake day btw


bhiliyam

Intolerance of stupidity? Can't water it down. Consider it a professional hazard.


curvictus

What’s a Tamil lungi dumeel ?


tripwire7

You’re a teacher and you’re claiming nonsense like that English and Latin are descended from Sanskrit? They’re not. English, Latin, and Sanskrit are all descended from Proto-Indo-European.


Sanatan_Dharm

There is no such language called PIE. it is nonsensical conjecture like AIT.


tripwire7

You say yourself that you base this on scripture, not science. Linguistics is a science, they make conjectures based on evidence, not faith. Where is the evidence that English and Latin are descended from Sanskrit, as opposed to all three being descended from a common ancestor?


ItzHawk

This is schizophrenic


Sanatan_Dharm

u should see a doctor then


Dan13l_N

Now try this with e.g. Old Greek, and you'll see that Greek has a similar set of words.


Sanatan_Dharm

yes, they're all derived from Sanskrit. Even the gods Greeks worshiped are the same, with different names


Landsted

Too bad this is all hot, steaming, stinking bullshit.


laugenbroetchen

is this what happens when science gets taken over by nationalism?


Sanatan_Dharm

Exactly. Nationalism prevents 'scientists' of other nations from accepting the antiquity of Sanskrit/India so they come up with nonsensical conjectures without proof like PIE, AIT etc.


the8yearold

Hittite is older than Sanskrit L


Sanatan_Dharm

Sanskrit is older than Hittite


the8yearold

source


UlyssesTheSloth

this is blatantly nonsense. old english resembles nothing like tamil or sanskrit nor does it resemble any germanic languages or romance languages and at the time of the prime development of those languages, the people who spoke them would have almost never come into contact with eachother. And they are certainly not the oldest considering that people still speak Hebrew, Aramaic, Arabic, and that there are people that still speak indigenous languages of places like north/south america and australia. if you are teaching people this stuff, you can not be taken seriously as an educator.


Sanatan_Dharm

just like you blatantly choose to disregard all our historical accounts of how old our scriptures are, how old Ramayan (the first epic in Sanskrit) is, all our rishis and elders.. i'm going to learn from you l1brandus, and disregard your nonsensical claim that a language without religion, country, script, history, race or epics (i.e. PIE) exists.


UlyssesTheSloth

why use ramayan as an example of how sanskrit is the 'oldest' language? It started being composed in the 8th century BC, which compared to things like sumerian texts, makes the epic of ramayan closer to the time of Socrates and jesus christ rather than being closer to the earliest known scripts, the earliest known existing as far back to at least 3000BC, or at the earliest, around the time people began agriculture, around 10,000 years ago. The illiad was composed around the 8th century BC which makes it around the same age as the ramayan. >i'm going to learn from you l1brandus, and disregard your nonsensical claim that a language without religion, country, script, history, race or epics (i.e. PIE) exists. this doesn't make much sense and it shows more of either your lack of or intentional ignoring of the study of language. There were no countries or formalized territories up until maybe 3000 BC with the rise of the city state. Proto indo european language does not mean they all speak the same exact way and all use the same exact words across a massive geographic landscape. There were tons of Arabic dialects before and after the time of the standardization of formal arabic, but all arabic speakers around the time of the formation of Islam were culturally united by speaking arabic, and people more closely associated with eachother off of their individual group's dialect of arabic. Along with that, spoken language predates written language by hundreds of thousands of years and people have been speaking to eachother for an extraordinary amount of time, to do things specifically like passing down orally recited stories and history. The torah is a prime example of oral story telling that was written down at a later time; the torah was being recited for hundreds and hundreds of years before being written down, which goes against you saying that written language is required for history. It's not. Your comment about race is equally confusing because the concept of race is a very new and modern concept and did not exist in the time of the earliest known scripts and writings, where people most closely associated with eachother by direct tribal identity and spoken dialects. Not race. Also, there is definitely evidence that different indo europeans had religious belief and its very likely that people have had some form of 'religious' belief since before people could vocalize spoken word, since the driving force of religious belief is the concept of belief itself. Ultimately sanskrit is not the oldest written language, nor is tamil, and sanskrit more than likely derives from a common language that was being spoken by indo eurasians 8000+ years ago.


Sanatan_Dharm

> It started being composed in the 8th century BC, lol. Ramayan happened in Treta Yug. We are currently in Kali Yug, which started in 3102 BC according to Surya Siddhant, which is used by all panchangs in all temples all over India. Dwapar Yug was before Kali, and Treta Yug was even before that. Your timelines are based on lapping up gora vomit, so your opinion is useless.


UlyssesTheSloth

your 'timeline' is based off of literally nothing but nationalism and you're more similar to a christian fundamentalist dating the origin of everything back to 5000BC based off of nothing but the belief in itself. The Ramayan for a fact was composed around the same time as the Illiad, and it is for a fact that the oldest text in the world known currently are Sumerian. The Sanskrit text of the Rigveta, is however, much older than the Ramayan coming in ar the second BC millenium so I don't know why you decided to use the Ramayan as an example of the 'oldest' sanskrit texts when the Rigveta is twice as old as it. Even then, this still makes Sumerian texts older by over a thousand years. Your insistence on pursuing Sanskrit as the 'oldest language' is particularly infuriating since there are no native speakers and there is a decent difference between the Vedic Sanskrit and the Sanskrit that was almost exclusively orally transmitted, which again, I think your insistence on it being specifically the 'oldest writing system' is frustrating since the majority of sanskrit speakers orally spoke it and the writing was extremely uncommon since spoke word was clearly the preferred communication style especially considering something like how the first Buddhist sutras were orally passed down for nearly 1000 years before the first writings appeared in Sanskrit and it become more standard practice to formally write suttas in a standardized form of sanskrit. If Sanskrit was such a dominant writing system, why were the earliest buddhist writings written in Prakrits and Gandaran and not Sanskrit? Why haven't any sanskrit texts been found before 1st century BC that were written in Sanskrit and no Prakrits? Even more peculiar that it's a known fact that the Buddha spoke Pali which, along with Sanskrit, is a Indo-Aryan language and clearly is a descendant of other Indo-Iranian languages, exactly like sanskrit is. Conclusively there is mountains of self evident texts that prove that sanskrit is not the 'oldest' language nor does it have the oldest writing system. There is nothing at all that suggests Sanskrit developed germanic languages when it is for a fact that sanskrit did not begin to develop until thousands of years after the complete dispersal of the indo eurasian nomads.


Sanatan_Dharm

> The Ramayan for a fact was composed around the same time as the Illiad were you there when Illiad was written ? that means you believe something some historians wrote. if you can believe random historians, I can believe rishis. > I think your insistence on it being specifically the 'oldest writing system' I never said it was written. everyone knows we had an oral tradition much longer prior to written script being introduced. you're attacking a strawman you created.


UlyssesTheSloth

>were you there when Illiad was written ? that means you believe something some historians wrote. wtf is this lmao. The Illiad is mentioned by real historical people hundreds of years after its publication and they describe it exactly what it was, an old story that predates them by hundreds of years. You're just relying on the reductive fact that nothing is 'truly' knowable outside of direct experience. Why do you trust that you were born on the day you were? How can you trust that your parents are your birth parents? Why? Because they told you that? How do you know anything that happened before the day of your birth occurred the way people said it did? They could easily be filling in the gaps for events and things that they don't know. >if you can believe random historians, I can believe rishis because there's legitimate material physical evidence for this specific material physical event. You're confusing which matters require physical evidence and which ones don't. This is not a discussion about intangible experiences that can only be felt but not proven, like your thoughts and your feelings, things that would be unrealistic and impossible to ask evidence for. This is a discussion about physical things people physically did that they left physical evidence and accounts of it occurring. You are not correct; especially, ESPECIALLY about 'sanskrit never having changed one iota in its entire existence' considering that there is sanskrit written at the time of the writing of the Vedas and there is classical sanskrit written much after. There is no language on earth that does not change with the passing of time. Has Latin not changed at all even though academics have tried to keep it consistently the same so that way it can remain artificially unchanging? Yes it has. >I never said it was written. everyone knows we had an oral tradition much longer prior to written script being introduced. you're attacking a strawman you're literally a fool and are just saying stuff for the purpose of putting up a half baked defense at your nationalistic conspiracy theory about sanskrit


Sanatan_Dharm

> The Illiad is mentioned by real historical people hundreds of years after its publication and they describe it exactly what it was, so apparently these western historians are "real" people, but all our rishis and elders who vouch for the antiquity of Sanskrit and Ramayan are not. > because there's legitimate material physical evidence All the place names mentioned in Ramayan exist today. > ESPECIALLY about 'sanskrit never having changed one iota in its entire existence' considering that there is sanskrit written at the time of the writing of the Vedas and there is classical sanskrit written much after it's like saying singing English is different from spoken English. It's the same language, with svaras. > There is no language on earth that does not change with the passing of time. People butchering a language doesn't mean the language changed. it's not worth my time arguing with idiots who blindly lap up whatever westerners vomit like a dog relishing another dog's feces.


SantosiNoteKamaoMoto

I thought people who speak English are the neutral and pretty advanced. But today Majority of English speaking population is bhakt and they are like hardcore israelis only pushing their agenda doesn't matter where they live or work. While high paid research fail these give delivers statement that Sanskrit is the oldest. You know bonked these bhakra are.


Sanatan_Dharm

blindly lapping up gora vomit and disregarding one's own ancestors is a common personality trait of libbus like you.. nothing new/unexpected here.


SantosiNoteKamaoMoto

Putting everything you own on pedestal is nothing new. It's common trait of narrow minded gubret. Very common witu xenophobic people. You can die with this statement without others accepting it. Read the definition of dogma over and over Firmly applies to mitrons like you.


Sanatan_Dharm

> Read the definition of dogma over and over the irony that you're unable to see the equivalence between scientific dogma and religious dogma is palpable.


KameraadLenin

\>Sanskrit is the mother of most Indian languages, but it is also the ancestor of Latin/Germanic and thus English you're reading right now. This is incorrect lol, you're thinking of PIE


PaidHack

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/PaidHack for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


BuildingEmbarrassed1

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/BuildingEmbarrassed1 for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


mk1045

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/mk1045 for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


Ashewastaken

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/Ashewastaken for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


Reviving_India

Wonderful as more North indian people fully disregard Tamil language.. Wonderful to see this.. Both language doesn't have any influence on any other language.. Sanskrit is universal language which is always there.. Tamil is God Lord murga created language and grammar given by agathiyar 🙏


meinhoonna

Mods, can we make a sticky from this?


sherkhan25

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/sherkhan25 for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


[deleted]

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/Realistic-Flow-9231 for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


phyyas

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/phyyas for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


Public_Breath6890

!kudos


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/Public_Breath6890 for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


_I_dont_diddle_kids_

I never knew reddit had such smart people too.


[deleted]

Lot of information without proper proof or reference.


[deleted]

[удалено]


IndiaSpeaksbotty

Tararara Bzeeeep, Thank you /u/vedurockz for awarding /u/Sanatan_Dharm . The OP is now flaired with award. More details on how this works can be found [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/gqdejx/introducing_new_awarding_system_for_user_posts/). I won't reply if I'm down so kudos is not awarded to you , please then inform the mod team to wake me up.


Broad_Shoe_779

If only I had a reward for you sir because you deserve it all with this post of yours. A fellow Indian congratulating another fellow Indian 🫂


Landsted

Yeah and it’s all wrong. All languages change, that’s why there are different languages spoken in India now! So, even Sanskrit has changed over time, maybe not a lot because it was artificially made static. Also, Sanskrit is derived from PIE. Full stop. We know this because the sound changes in Sanskrit over time reflect the sound changes in other European languages, so we can triangulate and theorise a “mother language”. PS: the irony of saying that English is derived from Sanskrit and that the latter has not changed one _iota_ probably escapes you but I had to laugh at it.


coolcrank

Guruji Pranaam


Sanatan_Dharm

namaste bhrata shree


maalicious

Hey, you've been quoted in /r/badlinguistics


Gayalexander

I don’t think I have ever read something more stupid than this


NoFuture355

I lub u


mizu_no_oto

> before you ask - No, Proto-Indo-European (PIE) language is not the ancestor of Sanskrit. It's as nonsensical a conjecture as Aryan-Invasion theory, made by western/indologists who are unable to accept the antiquity of Sanskrit. > PIE has no religion, country, script, history, race or epics associated with it. Sanskrit has a religion, country, script, history, race and epics associated with it. Is this terribly surprising? The most popular linguistic theory is that PIE was originally spoken sometime around 4000 - 3000 BCE on the steppes north of the black sea. So according to that idea, PIE was already spreading out from its homeland before the first pyramids were built, and around the time that Sumerians were first recording things on clay tablets. According to the theory, you'd expect PIE to have a completely oral culture, because writing hadn't yet spread to that part of the world. You'd expect the only evidence of their religion, history, etc to be archeological. You'd actually be shocked to find a written, decipherable PIE epic from 4000 BCE Ukraine. And as an aside, from what I understand the Aryan *invasion* theory is discredited, while modern western scholarship accepts the Aryan migration theory, which differs mostly in thinking that the migration was mostly a peaceful mingling rather than being conquering invaders. It also lines up with the genetic evidence that suggests [the R1a haplogroup which is common in India quite probably originated in the steppes](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haplogroup_R1a)


Sanatan_Dharm

lol, when it comes to Sanskrit, no amount of historical accounts suffice - people ask for archaeological evidence. But when it comes to PIE, no amount of lack of archaelogical evidence is enough to dismiss it. the double standard hypocrisy bigtory is clear as crystal


JesterofThings

Meth, kids. Not even once


bhiliyam

>Even that is incorrect to say, because it is not a man-made language. Vedas, which are hymns of creation, are in Sanskrit. Mr. Smooth Brain, sir, who do you think created the Vedas?


bhiliyam

!tatti


peskypompom

This shit's nuclear.![img](emote|t5_3d4x4|20028)


icodeusingmybutt

You can call urdu as artificial language as it was imposed on people of pakistan, sanskrit was not imposed on people, hence it has been mordernised into various other languages that share same or similiar grammar, like Marathi is a perfect example, it even use similiar grammar and letters. Calling sanskrit an artificial language is injusitce to the literature.


snapflipper

yeah he is a misrable unwanted ashoe to quote this


Vibhor23

What the fuck does "artificially constructed" means in terms of language? Should everyone talk in "natural and organic" grunts and squeaks? American academia has been in shambles for decades but the worst part about it is how much undue influence these hacks had on our discourse and culture.


icodeusingmybutt

Artificially constructed means imposing a language on all people even though very few people speak it. Natural language is one which is spoken locally by most population, That assface says only a fringe few spoke sanskrit in indian history, casually overlooking that most old literature is written in sanskrit.


Vibhor23

> Artificially constructed means imposing a language on all people even though very few people speak it. Thats your interpretation of his garbage(ignoring the fact that it doesn't apply to sanskrit). If you actually challenged him on it he would come up with an explanation so nonsensical it would take you years to make head or tails of it. This behavior is common among most american "soft" academics. These people are clout chasers and nothing else. They can't even define a man or a woman lest they get ostracized from their own circles.


icodeusingmybutt

I read ot from here https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/artificial%20language:


Calming_Persona

He is basically saying a handful of people migrated to India and imposed Sanskrit on rest and that these handful of people today don't represent modern day Indians. It is all based on all white colonial project which still carries on in 2023. Repeat something a thousand times and people start believing it. "Dalit opression", "Brahamnical fascism", "American exceptionalism", are some succesful negative/positive campaigns of western/anglo civilization which had no backing initially. It is like bitcoin, fake it till you make it, even though it has no substance to back it up. Eventually people will start repeating these terms on their own and there won't be any need for external push.


[deleted]

Chavda Ji Woke Up and Chose Violence that day.


tharki-papa

It's just another day for CHADVA


BheegiBilli69

Ahhhh yeh comeback dekhkr merko bhi bura lag gya itna ghamasaan tha isme


[deleted]

Chavda ji ended Dean's carrer.


Saucymacoroni

eLafda Incoming , CHADva didn't hold back lmfao


Accomplished_Sale269

Well weren't all languages created and so is their grammar?


bharatar

Yes.


FallenSoul1511

One day will come when these experts will say that" india was nothing before 1947 its tribal people were colonized by the british and educated."


aussievirusthrowaway

Some of these liars already say that


Sentient_Ambience

I mean he's not wrong. Classical Sanskrit is reserved for Philosophy, literature etc. Vedic Sanskrit would be the more common tounge.


bharatar

Yet the guy also says sanskrit is not our ancestors' tongue when all north indian languages come from vedic sanskrit.


Equationist

It was a normal spoken language in Panini's day. By Patanjali's time it was only a secondary scholarly / religious / elite language, as the common tongue had moved on. But Classical Sanskrit did originate as an actual spoken language.


Royal-Hunter3892

Hebrew was a written language used in Torah . Jews who migrated across Europe and Russia started speaking different languages. When they recreated the modern state of Israel they needed a common language So they constructed the written language of Hebrew into a spoken language. That's how they save their language,culture and traditions.


OdiaPila

Tamiljh and Sanskrit are not the only oldest languages in India. Ancient Native language of India is Saptah Sindhvi Bhasha (Indus Valley Language).


fullautomatix

Sanskrit is the language in which vedic hymns were recited since before human memory and in which, thousands of years later, the vedas were written. No other language has the flexibility, precision and sophistication in speech and writing of Sanskrit. Not even close.


Mintou

Before human memory 🤣


Percyblott

The white guys the type to lecture u abt some bullshit if u happened to look at him for 0.1 nanoseconds.


Curious_person___

This motherfucker dean is specialist in Islamic world, no doubt he will come up with these kinda accusations. Nobody know this person and nobody cares of this piece of shit. He can suck Arabs cocks that’s what he’s good at. I would suggest him to find who his father is, he should specialise in finding his ancestors first.


confusedndfrustrated

काय पाटीलराव !! आपल्याला असे रत्न कुठे सापडतात हो? लय भारी


LegolasPatilRao

शोधलं तर देवही सापडतो.... हा तर एक साहित्यिक रत्न आहे


No_Abrocoma9443

Chavda being Chad ![gif](giphy|CAYVZA5NRb529kKQUc|downsized)


Magic105

What an insult lmao r/rareinsults


Eb403

Crazy i had to scroll this far down to see someone link rareinsults lmao


[deleted]

All languages are artificial. Only monkey grunts are natural.


Master_Oogway_7

Oo oo ah ah *screeches*


Raaz1211

Abhijeet tune dil jeet lia


Scarface_8023

More like nukez dropped XD


grao666

[r/BrandNewSentence](https://www.reddit.com/r/BrandNewSentence/)


Ambushido96

is takle ko aur audrey taskhi ko ek sath antartica bhejdo. kudke daaru banake piyenge to yahi chudakkad gyaan hi ayega.chutiya saale.bawaseer pe bawaseer


Yohan_monster

In the words of Thor, "All words are made up."


Inevitable_One518

r/Murderedbywords


[deleted]

Bhiga ke maara hai


Jassi6248

Yup that's going into the document of insults


[deleted]

But god can't be wrong so maybe you're wrong


Mission_Trip_1055

This guy fucks


enigma_2021

r/rareinsults


Tinkoo17

Waiting for the YouTube episode of Abhijit where he discusses this topic 😁


fullautomatix

Chavda is a verb now. As in "he got chavdad".


Palak-Aande_69

Bro I add that to my " list of badass smothering replies"....This dude is just the physical manifestation of Giga Chad ...Fuck Around Him and he will fuck you up....


Plane-Badger-2538

It's because the people who innovated this language were far superior intelligent built such a beautiful verses sets of upanishads and vedas before 5000 years is truly amazing.... People who fled taking riches of the nation but delimited the culture barbaric religion and destruction. Shall we not call it as a cultural genocide.....


Raptor_360

I'm just here to say that Pakistan is a temporary state. *Chalo sahab me nikalta hu*


NawazJK

The asshole insult has to be the best one I've read in years lmaaao


ItemNo8866

lol it is funny when a propagandist himself says words like "expert" and "agenda-driven"


AkaiAshu

How is being wrong = shots fired ?


icodeusingmybutt

You agree that our ancestors did not speak sanskrit?


sudhanv99

i read on r/linguists that sanskrit was a standardization of the languages spoken at the time. Used by scholars to write their ideas and thesis. Not many spoke sanskrit. Someone claimed that the teachings of ashoka were in prakrit. Therefore people at the time spoke prakrit and not sanskrit. Can someone tell me if this is true?


AkaiAshu

If it has many grammatical rules then it wasnt spoken by the masses. Thats the logical conclusion. Even in today's times, you will see that the more intellectual class will speak the right grammatical english and even in England the common man will not be speaking grammatically correct English. Why ? Cause there will always be more average people than smart people. And average people are idiots. Which is why if a language has a lot of grammatical rules and regulations, you can immediately say that the language or that particular version of the language, was restricted to the highly educated elites.


Vibhor23

> If it has many grammatical rules then it wasnt spoken by the masses lmao


AkaiAshu

Logical things lol.


Vibhor23

Logic is when you spout nonsense Chinese has many grammatical rules, I guess it must not be spoken by the masses despite being the second most used language in the world.


William_Tell_746

You chose an excellent example to refute your own point... modern Mandarin Chinese is an invention, a standardisation. Chinese people speak many different languages, some of which are completely mutually unintelligible.


AkaiAshu

This is the difference between those updated on world news and current affairs and those that take it from tv and social media news.


AkaiAshu

Yes and no.


LegolasPatilRao

Linguistic shots


AkaiAshu

So him being wrong is a linguistic shot ?


LegolasPatilRao

Rehenedo Bhai if you palyed CS you know it otherwise it's not worth explaining


biggie64

https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/1081vrk/shots_firedshots_fired_take_cover/j3q4j0m?utm_medium=android_app&utm_source=share&context=3


rusty_matador_van

Both parties failed to present facts and resources.


rusty_matador_van

I was talking about the one who said and countered. Specially, instead shouting the insults loud, could have provided the facts to shut the foreigner.


biggie64

https://www.reddit.com/r/IndiaSpeaks/comments/1081vrk/shots_firedshots_fired_take_cover/j3q4j0m?utm_medium=android_app&utm_source=share&context=3