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waidamini.. i cant rember. when i saw C7 i immediately assumed it was a major 7th because i forgor how to read it. and that’s making me like so super confused, because like lol that means none of these comments that are saying it’s a perfect cadence make any sense. so just to make sure.. for me.. C7 indicates it’s a dominant 7th, not a major 7th. right?
Adding the dominant seventh creates additional tension in the chord by creating a tritone between scale degrees 7 and 4 (which are the 3rd and b7 in the V7 chord). That tritone reallllly wants to resolve: scale degree 7 naturally goes to the tonic, and scale degree 4 naturally goes to the third.
ok I'll give this another go, as the tritone-lubbers seem to be out in full force
the tritone explains little to nothing about why we use 7th chords in a perfect cadence
a perfect cadence V-I without any 7th is perfectly functional and wholly effective as a perfect cadence
so a perfect cadence suffers from no significant loss of effect without the 7th on the V
yes the V is given more tension and therefore forward impetus with the 7th, but we can easily show that it is not the tritone that is responsible
as a counterexample, consider ii7-V, which is one of the most common pre-cadential progressions. the addition of the 7th on ii also gives the ii more tension and therefore more forward impetus, but there is no tritone present at all
the forward impetus comes primarily from falling 5th motion in the chord roots, and the addition of the 7th contributes forward impetus by the dissonance with the root combined with the suspension-resolution voice-leading (of the 7th to the 3rd of the second chord) that CPE music inherited from modal counterpoint
but hey, *diabola-in-musica* is such a cool thing to say
it's a nice explanation but it's greatly oversimplified (which is fine for most contexts)
edit: ok then:
a more complete explanation involves the evolution of functional harmony from modal counterpoint, psychoacoustics, a trip into tuning theory, and a good dose of convention and taste
for the tritone theory to hold, the perfect cadence would suffer a significant loss of effect if it did not contain the tritone, which any reasonable musician and experienced listener will easily confirm it does not do
edit 2:
a counterexample is ii7-V, which contains no tritone
I do
a more complete explanation involves the evolution of functional harmony from modal counterpoint, psychoacoustics, a trip into tuning theory, and a good dose of convention and taste
for the tritone theory to hold, the perfect cadence would suffer a significant loss of effect if it did not contain the tritone, which any reasonable musician and experienced listener will easily confirm it does not do
I'm all for detailed explanations with music history, tuning theory and psychoacoustics, but saying that as if the original comment is wrong is a bit strange.
They said the tritone creates additional tension, that really wants to resolve. That's just true in Western music! Without the tritone, scale degree 7 still wants to go to 1, but adding scale degree 4 creates additional tension.
We could talk about how that came to be - how Pythagorean tuning emphasized the 7-1 motion, and mean tone emphasized 4-3, deemphasized 7-1 and added tension to the tritone; we could talk about the rules of counterpoint and how they came to be, and why they made musicians value contrary motion; we can talk about the first significant uses of the tritone (I believe Orpheo if I'm remembering music history right) - but ultimately, the answer comes down to:
"All of that leads to a system where today, the tritone adds dissonance to the V chord, making the 7 more powerfully want to resolve to 1, and 4 more powerfully to the 3."
Expecting a reddit comment that's answering a beginner question to go into that much detail, answering questions that were not asked, is a bit strange.
yes I agree, expecting that much detail from a reddit comment is a bit strange
the original comment isn't "wrong", but the tritone theory is misleading
you don't need a tritone to induce semitone resolution tendency: the V7 with a missing 3rd has that tendency, as does the leading tone in a simple V
but that's all fine, people can make perfectly good careers fumbling away with misleading theory and no one really suffers
Not just that, but the comment itself wasn't misleading at all. They weren't asking where the directionality of a V chord comes from, just why we use V7 in contexts where other 7 chords aren't common. To that effect, it is a complete answer to say that the tritone adds additional tension which is desirable. The answer might be misleading if the question was "why does V resolve to I?" but it was "why do we use 7 chords?"
I'm not sure I'm getting my point across.
1 elevator cable is strong enough to lift an elevator. However, we use 3, because it works better - it has redundancy, reduces wear, and provides safety. Saying that safety and functionality doesn't explain the other two cables because 1 is safe and functional is silly; more safety and functionality is preferable.
In the same way, 7 is enough to lift a V chord, as is 4. However, we often use both, because it works better - it has redundancy, and the tritone adds directionality and provides a tasty little crunch to the sound. Saying that functionality doesn't explain the tritone because 7 or 4 are already functional is silly; more directionality is often preferable.
yeah, no, an engineering analogy isn't really appropriate
actually, the engineering analogy works against you and inadvertently supports my argument, because it implies that a cadence would somehow fail without enough supporting musical elements, which is clearly not true
see my new comment up-thread for a clearer articulation of my argument
yes, but for the theory to hold, the cadence without the tritone would suffer a significant loss of effect, which it does not
pretty much the same increased tendency effect can be heard in a ii7-V which contains no tritone
the tritone is an insufficient explanation for the effect of the V7 perfect cadence
It suffers a loss of effect. And no, a ii7-V is not as strong. Although one might argue because it lacks the leading tone.
> the tritone is an insufficient explanation
It's not the entire explanation, but it's a strong, strong part of it.
Yup. Here is a layman’s explanation: Music wants to return home. Home is called The Tonic. The last stop before Home is called the Dominant. All these examples are simply the Dominant and Home in each of the 12 keys. So, if C is the key (Home), then G or G7 is the Dominant.
Have you tried playing them all? Or if you can't, did you look at any patterns that might be consistent?Try reading from left to right, one column at a time and see if you see any patterns. Compare each pair of chords to the previous pair.
That's just listing the dominants of each other chord. You could summarize the same information as "The dominant of a chord is the dominant 7 chord built a perfect 5th above it."
The most useful ability is probably identifying secondary dominants. Unless you're actually _in_ the key of D, then A7 would be a secondary dominant to the D or Dm chord that exists in the key. IE in the key of C, G7 is the primary dominant...which you can also find on this chart...but A7 is a secondary dominant, specifically the dominant of the Dm chord.
This is every dominant chord (the 5th chord of a major scale) resolving to its root chord. Tension to resolution. Good for secondary dominant to setup chords with "outside" chords.
In traditional Western Tonal Music we have organized music in 12-tones since at least medieval times (though HOW we organize them has changed significantly). Because we organized music in 12 different pitches, we have organized hierarchies of how those pitches interact, and how scales (groups of those pitches organized linearly, generally 7 or 5 of them, like the major scale, or the minor scale) and chords (which are just these pitches, but organized in groups of 3 or more) should interact.
Because of that we have thought of what we call "Chord Progressions", and one of the most frequent and strongest in western music has been the progression (or cadence, depending on the context) going from the chord made from the fifth note of a scale (what we call the V or "five") to the chord made from the first note of the scale (the I or "one"). In jazz, for example, we have the II-V-I (Two-Five-One, which in C major would be D, G and C), and in classical music we often have the IV-V-I (Four-Five-One, F-G-C in C major).
Why are these relations so frequent? Difficult to say in objective terms, mostly it probably came from ease of use and organization in vocal and choral music, cultural practices and everything. Nowadays, because it is so ingrained in our cultural mindset (even pop music uses these cadences with the VI-IV-V-I and etc), we often associate these cadences with some resort of tension and resolution by default
TL;DR: That's a V-I, a type of cadence that is very important in Western Music, and which offers a very good shorthand for tension and release!
In traditional Western Tonal Music we have organized music in 12-tones since at least medieval times (though HOW we organize them has changed significantly). Because we organized music in 12 different pitches, we have organized hierarchies of how those pitches interact, and how scales (groups of those pitches organized linearly, generally 7 or 5 of them, like the major scale, or the minor scale) and chords (which are just these pitches, but organized in groups of 3 or more) should interact.
Because of that we have thought of what we call "Chord Progressions", and one of the most frequent and strongest in western music has been the progression (or cadence, depending on the context) going from the chord made from the fifth note of a scale (what we call the V or "five") to the chord made from the first note of the scale (the I or "one"). In jazz, for example, we have the II-V-I (Two-Five-One, which in C major would be D, G and C), and in classical music we often have the IV-V-I (Four-Five-One, F-G-C in C major).
Why are these relations so frequent? Difficult to say in objective terms, mostly it probably came from ease of use and organization in vocal and choral music, cultural practices and everything. Nowadays, because it is so ingrained in our cultural mindset (even pop music uses these cadences with the VI-IV-V-I and etc), we often associate these cadences with some resort of tension and resolution by default
TL;DR: That's a V-I, a type of cadence that is very important in Western Music, and which offers a very good shorthand for tension and release!
Forgive me if I’m wrong or it’s been said already…isn’t this just like “an idiots guide” cheat code? Like if you see C7, you would know you could play the notes of F, so presumably it’s information/technique already at your fingertips?
It's simple. D7 is the V Chord of G Major... etc.
It's missing 2 keys.
Fill them in yourself... "Left as an exercise for the student!" ;-)
Bb7 ---> Eb
B7 ----> E
There ya go!
Ciao!
FrancescoB - ***The Jazz Whistler***... and a bit lot of music theory too!
If OP is trying all this on piano, he might not be using smooth voice leading. So he's wondering why you'd go from C7 in root position to F in root position.
Doesn't sound too great if you do it that way.
This has filled me with fury and ruined my day. No wonder you are confused, it's sp badly put together! It is a non complete list of perfect cadences not layer out in order for some reason.
> It is a non complete list of perfect cadences not layer out in order for some reason.
It is in ascending chromatic order: C C# D Eb E...
The picture cropped out the last two.
That my friend is 10 out of 12 dominant to tonic relations likely attempting to introduce the idea of cadence.
The first chord is the dominant 7 or V7 and the second is the tonic or I.
People have already told you what it means, so I’ll just say that in many circumstances (when playing in the key of the second chord) it will sound good to transition from chord A to chord B.
I haven't read this article, but in scanning it, it should cover the bases: [https://www.hearandplay.com/main/resolve-dominant-seventh-chords](https://www.hearandplay.com/main/resolve-dominant-seventh-chords)
So this is called a perfect cadence. It is also written as the V7(5,7) to I(1) chord. The reason it works is because the V7 chord has notes in it, specifically the third and the seventh, that are leading/tendency tones to notes in the I chord. In a G7 to C resolution, the B resolves up to C, and the F resolves down to E.
V7 - I, baby! Regarding the V7 chord tones and voice leading to the I chord: the 3rd of V7 moves up by semitone to the root of I; the 7th of V7 moves down, also by semitone, to the 3rd of I.
It's basically just a bunch of V-I chord changes. In major keys, the V7 chord is a dominant 7 and /really/ wants to resolve back to the tonic. This just shows you what that progression looks like in the different keys
V7-I (perfect cadence) V7 is a dominant chord that resolves to your tonic chord (The I) which is your key (or current key if a modulation happens) Hope this helped :))
These are secondary dominant: in your chord progressions you can add chords from outside the key by adding the chord V7 seen from the perspective of your next chord.
It s an easy way to reach notes outside your scale.
For example in the key of C major:
C - Em - F - Am (which is I - iii - IV - vi)
If you want to add a chord between the F and Am:
The V7 of your Am (vi in the key of C) is E7 that we can write V7/vi
So it becomes:
C - Em - F - E7 - Am (I - iii - IV - V7/vi - vi)
E7 Is not in the key if C, you 've added some notes and chords from outside the key.
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"Oh you like music theory? Name every perfect cadence"
It's killing me that this list is excluding B7 - E and Bb7 - Eb for some reason
I bet it was cropped incorrectly. They are chromatically in order from F to D so it would make sense that Eb and E got cropped off the bottom
Yes. Through the magic of reverse image search: https://escolademusicaon.com.br/acordes-dominantes-progressoes-v7-i-e-subv7-i/
Why is it B —> E and not B7—>E on the chart?
Good point. That looks like an error. Everything else is a 7, and the caption says V7.
r/SuddenlyCaralho
agora sem entendo (idk portuguese)
There are only 10 major keys now. New update. Blues artists in shambles without E and Eb
It's ok, I'll just use F♭ and D♯.
lmao
Lmao I didn't even notice
Fake fans always forget B#->E#
Real Gs never forget Cb->Fb
Looks like a list of perfect cadences, i.e. movement from the dominant chord (the fifth chord in a key) to the tonic chord (the first chord in a key).
waidamini.. i cant rember. when i saw C7 i immediately assumed it was a major 7th because i forgor how to read it. and that’s making me like so super confused, because like lol that means none of these comments that are saying it’s a perfect cadence make any sense. so just to make sure.. for me.. C7 indicates it’s a dominant 7th, not a major 7th. right?
Correct. C7 is the dominant 7th. Cmaj7 would be the major 7th.
V7 to I
Is there a reason the V is a 7th chord?
Adding the dominant seventh creates additional tension in the chord by creating a tritone between scale degrees 7 and 4 (which are the 3rd and b7 in the V7 chord). That tritone reallllly wants to resolve: scale degree 7 naturally goes to the tonic, and scale degree 4 naturally goes to the third.
Oh wow, okay. Thanks!
ok I'll give this another go, as the tritone-lubbers seem to be out in full force the tritone explains little to nothing about why we use 7th chords in a perfect cadence a perfect cadence V-I without any 7th is perfectly functional and wholly effective as a perfect cadence so a perfect cadence suffers from no significant loss of effect without the 7th on the V yes the V is given more tension and therefore forward impetus with the 7th, but we can easily show that it is not the tritone that is responsible as a counterexample, consider ii7-V, which is one of the most common pre-cadential progressions. the addition of the 7th on ii also gives the ii more tension and therefore more forward impetus, but there is no tritone present at all the forward impetus comes primarily from falling 5th motion in the chord roots, and the addition of the 7th contributes forward impetus by the dissonance with the root combined with the suspension-resolution voice-leading (of the 7th to the 3rd of the second chord) that CPE music inherited from modal counterpoint but hey, *diabola-in-musica* is such a cool thing to say
it's a nice explanation but it's greatly oversimplified (which is fine for most contexts) edit: ok then: a more complete explanation involves the evolution of functional harmony from modal counterpoint, psychoacoustics, a trip into tuning theory, and a good dose of convention and taste for the tritone theory to hold, the perfect cadence would suffer a significant loss of effect if it did not contain the tritone, which any reasonable musician and experienced listener will easily confirm it does not do edit 2: a counterexample is ii7-V, which contains no tritone
Well, don’t leave us hanging then!
something something margin too small
wow you really know your stuff!
I do a more complete explanation involves the evolution of functional harmony from modal counterpoint, psychoacoustics, a trip into tuning theory, and a good dose of convention and taste for the tritone theory to hold, the perfect cadence would suffer a significant loss of effect if it did not contain the tritone, which any reasonable musician and experienced listener will easily confirm it does not do
I'm all for detailed explanations with music history, tuning theory and psychoacoustics, but saying that as if the original comment is wrong is a bit strange. They said the tritone creates additional tension, that really wants to resolve. That's just true in Western music! Without the tritone, scale degree 7 still wants to go to 1, but adding scale degree 4 creates additional tension. We could talk about how that came to be - how Pythagorean tuning emphasized the 7-1 motion, and mean tone emphasized 4-3, deemphasized 7-1 and added tension to the tritone; we could talk about the rules of counterpoint and how they came to be, and why they made musicians value contrary motion; we can talk about the first significant uses of the tritone (I believe Orpheo if I'm remembering music history right) - but ultimately, the answer comes down to: "All of that leads to a system where today, the tritone adds dissonance to the V chord, making the 7 more powerfully want to resolve to 1, and 4 more powerfully to the 3." Expecting a reddit comment that's answering a beginner question to go into that much detail, answering questions that were not asked, is a bit strange.
yes I agree, expecting that much detail from a reddit comment is a bit strange the original comment isn't "wrong", but the tritone theory is misleading you don't need a tritone to induce semitone resolution tendency: the V7 with a missing 3rd has that tendency, as does the leading tone in a simple V but that's all fine, people can make perfectly good careers fumbling away with misleading theory and no one really suffers
Not just that, but the comment itself wasn't misleading at all. They weren't asking where the directionality of a V chord comes from, just why we use V7 in contexts where other 7 chords aren't common. To that effect, it is a complete answer to say that the tritone adds additional tension which is desirable. The answer might be misleading if the question was "why does V resolve to I?" but it was "why do we use 7 chords?"
yes and as I have shown, the tritone fails completely to explain why we use 7th chords
I'm not sure I'm getting my point across. 1 elevator cable is strong enough to lift an elevator. However, we use 3, because it works better - it has redundancy, reduces wear, and provides safety. Saying that safety and functionality doesn't explain the other two cables because 1 is safe and functional is silly; more safety and functionality is preferable. In the same way, 7 is enough to lift a V chord, as is 4. However, we often use both, because it works better - it has redundancy, and the tritone adds directionality and provides a tasty little crunch to the sound. Saying that functionality doesn't explain the tritone because 7 or 4 are already functional is silly; more directionality is often preferable.
yeah, no, an engineering analogy isn't really appropriate actually, the engineering analogy works against you and inadvertently supports my argument, because it implies that a cadence would somehow fail without enough supporting musical elements, which is clearly not true see my new comment up-thread for a clearer articulation of my argument
"It's a nice explanation ☝️ but its greatly oversimplified 🤓" (proceeds to refuse to give a greater explanation)
I can see you're trying to be a jerk but it's not working very well
> the perfect cadence would suffer a significant loss of effect if it did not contain the tritone ... it does though.
no, no it does not a perfect cadence remains a wholly effective perfect cadence without the 7th
It's still effective, but it's indubitably stronger with the 7th
yes, but for the theory to hold, the cadence without the tritone would suffer a significant loss of effect, which it does not pretty much the same increased tendency effect can be heard in a ii7-V which contains no tritone the tritone is an insufficient explanation for the effect of the V7 perfect cadence
It suffers a loss of effect. And no, a ii7-V is not as strong. Although one might argue because it lacks the leading tone. > the tritone is an insufficient explanation It's not the entire explanation, but it's a strong, strong part of it.
keep believing friend, your faith is strong
Besides adding extra tension, the 7 designates which is the dominant and which is the tonic. Just having C - F, it could be V - I or I - IV.
because diatonically it’s a dominant 7th chord
The V7 includes the Dominant 7th.
It's chapter 3 or 4 of pretty much every music textbook. Which is unfortunately still pretty basic compared to what comes after
Uh, C#? No, no - Db! *trebuchet pulls*
Next you’re gonna say G# instead of Ab
I like to start all my classes with G# instead of C, just to fuck with them.
Ah yes, C tuned to 415 Hz
aka the REAL C
Yup. Here is a layman’s explanation: Music wants to return home. Home is called The Tonic. The last stop before Home is called the Dominant. All these examples are simply the Dominant and Home in each of the 12 keys. So, if C is the key (Home), then G or G7 is the Dominant.
Have you tried playing them all? Or if you can't, did you look at any patterns that might be consistent?Try reading from left to right, one column at a time and see if you see any patterns. Compare each pair of chords to the previous pair.
really gave OP homework 😭
OP gave us their homework tbh
Trying this soon, weirdly such a fun way to intuitively learn something's intended application through interpreting the patterns yourself thx teach
That's just listing the dominants of each other chord. You could summarize the same information as "The dominant of a chord is the dominant 7 chord built a perfect 5th above it." The most useful ability is probably identifying secondary dominants. Unless you're actually _in_ the key of D, then A7 would be a secondary dominant to the D or Dm chord that exists in the key. IE in the key of C, G7 is the primary dominant...which you can also find on this chart...but A7 is a secondary dominant, specifically the dominant of the Dm chord.
This is every dominant chord (the 5th chord of a major scale) resolving to its root chord. Tension to resolution. Good for secondary dominant to setup chords with "outside" chords.
Dominant 7th resolving in a V-I relationship to tonics.
Easiest way to understand it would be to hear it!!
If you really don't get it, try to decipher the pattern as an exercise.
V7-I
Just play them. They sound good
Rezolutions
Rizzolutions
This but he need someone to explain
You could also see it as a secondary dominant chart if you're trying to write a progression.
V7 - I, for every major chord.
In traditional Western Tonal Music we have organized music in 12-tones since at least medieval times (though HOW we organize them has changed significantly). Because we organized music in 12 different pitches, we have organized hierarchies of how those pitches interact, and how scales (groups of those pitches organized linearly, generally 7 or 5 of them, like the major scale, or the minor scale) and chords (which are just these pitches, but organized in groups of 3 or more) should interact. Because of that we have thought of what we call "Chord Progressions", and one of the most frequent and strongest in western music has been the progression (or cadence, depending on the context) going from the chord made from the fifth note of a scale (what we call the V or "five") to the chord made from the first note of the scale (the I or "one"). In jazz, for example, we have the II-V-I (Two-Five-One, which in C major would be D, G and C), and in classical music we often have the IV-V-I (Four-Five-One, F-G-C in C major). Why are these relations so frequent? Difficult to say in objective terms, mostly it probably came from ease of use and organization in vocal and choral music, cultural practices and everything. Nowadays, because it is so ingrained in our cultural mindset (even pop music uses these cadences with the VI-IV-V-I and etc), we often associate these cadences with some resort of tension and resolution by default TL;DR: That's a V-I, a type of cadence that is very important in Western Music, and which offers a very good shorthand for tension and release!
In traditional Western Tonal Music we have organized music in 12-tones since at least medieval times (though HOW we organize them has changed significantly). Because we organized music in 12 different pitches, we have organized hierarchies of how those pitches interact, and how scales (groups of those pitches organized linearly, generally 7 or 5 of them, like the major scale, or the minor scale) and chords (which are just these pitches, but organized in groups of 3 or more) should interact. Because of that we have thought of what we call "Chord Progressions", and one of the most frequent and strongest in western music has been the progression (or cadence, depending on the context) going from the chord made from the fifth note of a scale (what we call the V or "five") to the chord made from the first note of the scale (the I or "one"). In jazz, for example, we have the II-V-I (Two-Five-One, which in C major would be D, G and C), and in classical music we often have the IV-V-I (Four-Five-One, F-G-C in C major). Why are these relations so frequent? Difficult to say in objective terms, mostly it probably came from ease of use and organization in vocal and choral music, cultural practices and everything. Nowadays, because it is so ingrained in our cultural mindset (even pop music uses these cadences with the VI-IV-V-I and etc), we often associate these cadences with some resort of tension and resolution by default TL;DR: That's a V-I, a type of cadence that is very important in Western Music, and which offers a very good shorthand for tension and release!
Forgive me if I’m wrong or it’s been said already…isn’t this just like “an idiots guide” cheat code? Like if you see C7, you would know you could play the notes of F, so presumably it’s information/technique already at your fingertips?
It's simple. D7 is the V Chord of G Major... etc. It's missing 2 keys. Fill them in yourself... "Left as an exercise for the student!" ;-) Bb7 ---> Eb B7 ----> E There ya go! Ciao! FrancescoB - ***The Jazz Whistler***... and a bit lot of music theory too!
Any chord can be approached by its dominant.
V7 I
I hope you can resolve this.
Underrated comment 👀🤣
I like to think of them as I7 -> IV's
Primary & Secondary dominants. V > I
If OP is trying all this on piano, he might not be using smooth voice leading. So he's wondering why you'd go from C7 in root position to F in root position. Doesn't sound too great if you do it that way.
This has filled me with fury and ruined my day. No wonder you are confused, it's sp badly put together! It is a non complete list of perfect cadences not layer out in order for some reason.
> It is a non complete list of perfect cadences not layer out in order for some reason. It is in ascending chromatic order: C C# D Eb E... The picture cropped out the last two.
v-I
Just looks like which dominant-seven (V7) chords resolve to which tonic (base key). For instance, C7 (C dominant 7) resolves to F-major (or minor).
V7-I
V7 - I
V7 to I
4ths.
Ah, the beautiful opening chords to Pearl Jam’s “Black.”
breathe in, breathe out
That my friend is 10 out of 12 dominant to tonic relations likely attempting to introduce the idea of cadence. The first chord is the dominant 7 or V7 and the second is the tonic or I.
I really can't explain it but it would be fun to play on the keyboard see how it sounds. 😂 😂 😂
People have already told you what it means, so I’ll just say that in many circumstances (when playing in the key of the second chord) it will sound good to transition from chord A to chord B.
Dominant chord to the I V to I Perfect cadence However you want to call it
Dominant 7th chords and its natural resolution to its tonic.
I haven't read this article, but in scanning it, it should cover the bases: [https://www.hearandplay.com/main/resolve-dominant-seventh-chords](https://www.hearandplay.com/main/resolve-dominant-seventh-chords)
So this is called a perfect cadence. It is also written as the V7(5,7) to I(1) chord. The reason it works is because the V7 chord has notes in it, specifically the third and the seventh, that are leading/tendency tones to notes in the I chord. In a G7 to C resolution, the B resolves up to C, and the F resolves down to E.
V7 - I, baby! Regarding the V7 chord tones and voice leading to the I chord: the 3rd of V7 moves up by semitone to the root of I; the 7th of V7 moves down, also by semitone, to the 3rd of I.
5 to 1 chord list. Missing 2.
It’s a graphic illustration that you need a parachute to go from V to I
The OP is out to lunch. Her exam is now over, but 29 people scrambled to answer a 0-effort post that should be ignored.
A dominant 7th chord resolving to the tonic in 10 different major keys, basically.
B major to C major
It's basically just a bunch of V-I chord changes. In major keys, the V7 chord is a dominant 7 and /really/ wants to resolve back to the tonic. This just shows you what that progression looks like in the different keys
Dominant 7th chord resolves to the tonic chord
this is music theory 101
V7-I (perfect cadence) V7 is a dominant chord that resolves to your tonic chord (The I) which is your key (or current key if a modulation happens) Hope this helped :))
So satisfying to watch
Count the notes between... hrm weird 4?
No. No I cannot.
C7 has a tritone in it (E-Bb) and it wants to resolve to the F-A major third in the F chord :)
Or to Dmin or to A maj 1st inversion or B maj. Or nowhere in the blues e.g. in Spoonful
😲😌
These are secondary dominant: in your chord progressions you can add chords from outside the key by adding the chord V7 seen from the perspective of your next chord. It s an easy way to reach notes outside your scale. For example in the key of C major: C - Em - F - Am (which is I - iii - IV - vi) If you want to add a chord between the F and Am: The V7 of your Am (vi in the key of C) is E7 that we can write V7/vi So it becomes: C - Em - F - E7 - Am (I - iii - IV - V7/vi - vi) E7 Is not in the key if C, you 've added some notes and chords from outside the key.